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100% Pass Quiz 2026 ACDIS CCDS-O: Unparalleled Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient Valid Test Test

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ACDIS Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient Sample Questions (Q104-Q109):

NEW QUESTION # 104
Using the table above, which of the following HCC(s) should be assigned for documentation stating the patient has resolving AKI due to ATN, creatinine levels slowly returning to baseline, and CKD- stage 3-4?

A. HCC 326
B. HCC 327
C. HCC 328
D. HCC 329

Answer: B

Explanation:
In HCC risk adjustment, chronic kidney disease (CKD) is captured by stage-based HCCs that are hierarchical-only the highest supported CKD stage in the hierarchy is counted for RAF when multiple stages (or a range) are referenced. The documentation includes "CKD - stage 3-4," which indicates the patient's baseline CKD severity falls somewhere between stage 3 and stage 4. When selecting from the provided table, stage 4 maps to HCC 327 and is higher than stage 3 categories (HCC 328 for stage 3B and HCC 329 for stage 3 except 3B). AKI due to ATN describes an acute process and does not replace the need to capture baseline CKD stage when it is clinically relevant and documented. Outpatient CDI best practice would be to query the provider to specify the exact CKD stage (since "3-4" is imprecise), but when forced to choose from the hierarchy shown, the correct HCC assignment based on the highest stated stage in the documented range is HCC 327 (CKD stage 4).

NEW QUESTION # 105
After a CDI specialist describes how RAF is calculated, a provider states, "I just don't see how this impacts patient care." Which of the following is the MOST appropriate response related to the RAF score?

A. "It predicts expected resources needed to care for the patient."
B. "It determines the patient's out of pocket expenses."
C. "It determines what you will be reimbursed."
D. "It predicts medical necessity of ordered procedures/treatments."

Answer: A

Explanation:
RAF (Risk Adjustment Factor) is best explained to providers as a population-health and resource-planning tool, not a visit-level payment lever. In outpatient risk adjustment models, diagnoses and demographics are used to estimate the patient's overall disease burden and the expected cost/resources required to meet that patient's healthcare needs. When documentation accurately reflects active conditions and their specificity, the patient's risk profile is represented more realistically. That improves care in practical ways: it supports appropriate allocation of care management services (e.g., nurse navigators, chronic care programs), helps organizations anticipate medication, testing, specialist, and follow-up needs, and improves fairness of performance benchmarking by comparing outcomes and costs against similarly complex patients. Option A is overly simplistic because RAF does not directly determine an individual provider's reimbursement for a given encounter; it influences broader payment and benchmarking methodologies tied to attributed populations. Option C is not what RAF measures, and option D confuses RAF with medical necessity, which is based on clinical documentation and coverage rules, not a risk score.

NEW QUESTION # 106
Clinic documentation states: "Follow-up for post-induction chemotherapy for metastatic uterine cancer." To BEST identify the conditions being monitored and treated, a CDI specialist should

A. evaluate diagnostic lab results.
B. review the record for MRI results.
C. query for secondary sites.
D. clarify the morphology of the tumor.

Answer: C

Explanation:
When documentation states "metastatic uterine cancer," the most important missing element for complete, accurate outpatient coding is where the cancer has metastasized (the secondary site[s]). In ambulatory CDI, identifying secondary sites best clarifies the full scope of disease being monitored and treated because metastatic disease coding relies on documenting both the primary malignancy and the specific metastatic location(s) (e.g., lung, liver, bone, peritoneum, lymph nodes). This supports correct severity representation, risk capture, treatment intent, and medical necessity for ongoing chemotherapy follow-up. While tumor morphology can be clinically relevant, it is usually established earlier in the diagnostic pathway and does not, by itself, define current metastatic burden. Likewise, reviewing labs or MRI results may provide supportive indicators, but they do not replace provider documentation of the confirmed metastatic sites being managed. A compliant query focused on secondary sites prompts the provider to document the current metastatic disease status (active, responding, progressing) and specific locations, which most directly identifies the conditions under treatment.

NEW QUESTION # 107
Which of the following encounters is billed as an outpatient encounter?

A. ED visit that leads to observation stay
B. Ambulatory surgery encounter for scheduled sigmoid resection
C. Admission for COPD exacerbation with length of stay less than two midnights
D. ED visit that leads to inpatient admission

Answer: A

Explanation:
Under Medicare billing rules applied in outpatient CDI education, observation services are outpatient (typically paid under Part B), even though the patient may stay in a hospital bed and receive ongoing monitoring and treatment. Therefore, an ED visit that converts to observation remains an outpatient encounter from a billing and documentation perspective, and the services are reported/paid as outpatient. By contrast, when an ED visit results in an inpatient admission, the encounter transitions to inpatient status, and many hospital ED services immediately preceding admission are commonly bundled/packaged with the inpatient stay rather than billed as a separate outpatient encounter. A scheduled sigmoid resection is generally a major procedure that is not typically performed as ambulatory/outpatient surgery in routine circumstances, so it is not the best outpatient choice here. Finally, "admission for COPD exacerbation with LOS less than two midnights" is ambiguous because "admission" implies inpatient, even though short stays may sometimes be observation/outpatient depending on medical necessity and the 2-midnight guidance. The clearest outpatient encounter is ED leading to observation.

NEW QUESTION # 108
An African American male enrolled in Medicaid has not been taking his blood pressure medication. Which of the following factors impacts this beneficiary's risk score?

A. Medicaid status and race
B. Patient noncompliance and age
C. Medicaid status and gender
D. ICD-10-CM codes and race

Answer: C

Explanation:
Medicaid risk adjustment models generally calculate risk using two major categories of inputs: demographics and diagnosis data. Demographic factors commonly include gender and indicators tied to Medicaid status/eligibility (for example, eligibility category, dual status, disability-related eligibility, or other program qualifiers depending on the state/model). These demographic elements adjust expected cost and are foundational to the risk score even before considering diagnoses. By contrast, race is not a standard input for calculating Medicaid risk scores in typical risk adjustment methodologies, so options that include race are not supported. Likewise, "patient noncompliance" is primarily a clinical and quality-of-care issue and may affect treatment outcomes, but it is not itself a standard risk-score driver unless it is documented as a reportable, supported diagnosis that the specific model recognizes (and most models don't directly risk-adjust for nonadherence codes). Therefore, among the options given, Medicaid status and gender are the most clearly valid factors that impact the beneficiary's risk score.

NEW QUESTION # 109
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